ISC2 CISSP Dumps
| Exam Code | CISSP |
| Exam Name | Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) |
| Update Date | 14 Dec, 2024 |
| Total Questions | 1486 Questions Answers With Explanation |
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Question # 1
What protocol is often used between gateway hosts on the Internet’ To control the scope of a Business Continuity Management (BCM) system, a security practitioner should identify which of the following?
A. Size, nature, and complexity of the organization
B. Business needs of the security organization
C. All possible risks
D. Adaptation model for future recovery planning
Question # 2
The core component of Role Based Access control (RBAC) must be constructed of defined data elements. Which elements are required?
A. Users, permissions, operators, and protected objects
B. Users, rotes, operations, and protected objects
C. Roles, accounts, permissions, and protected objects
D. Roles, operations, accounts, and protected objects
Question # 3
Which of the following access management procedures would minimize the possibility of an organization's employees retaining access to secure werk areas after they change roles?
A. User access modification
B. user access recertification
C. User access termination
D. User access provisioning
Question # 4
What Is the FIRST step in establishing an information security program?
A. Establish an information security policy.
B. Identify factors affecting information security.
C. Establish baseline security controls.
D. Identify critical security infrastructure.
Question # 5
During the Security Assessment and Authorization process, what is the PRIMARY purpose for conducting a hardware and software inventory?
A. Calculate the value of assets being accredited.
B. Create a list to include in the Security Assessment and Authorization package.
C. Identify obsolete hardware and software.
D. Define the boundaries of the information system.
Question # 6
In which identity management process is the subject’s identity established?
A. Trust
B. Provisioning
C. Authorization
D. Enrollment
Question # 7
Although code using a specific program language may not be susceptible to a buffer overflow attack,
A. most calls to plug-in programs are susceptible.
B. most supporting application code is susceptible.
C. the graphical images used by the application could be susceptible.
D. the supporting virtual machine could be susceptible.
Question # 8
In general, servers that are facing the Internet should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ). What is MAIN purpose of the DMZ?
A. Reduced risk to internal systems.
B. Prepare the server for potential attacks.
C. Mitigate the risk associated with the exposed server.
D. Bypass the need for a firewall.
Question # 9
What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?
A. SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission
Control Protocol (TCP).
B. SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.
C. SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.
D. SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
Question # 10
Which of the following media sanitization techniques is MOST likely to be effective for an organization using public cloud services?
A. Low-level formatting
B. Secure-grade overwrite erasure
C. Cryptographic erasure
D. Drive degaussing
Question # 11
Which of the following is the BEST example of weak management commitment to the protection of security assets and resources?
A. poor governance over security processes and procedures
B. immature security controls and procedures
C. variances against regulatory requirements
D. unanticipated increases in security incidents and threats
Question # 12
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern when using an Internet browser to access a cloud-based service?
A. Insecure implementation of Application Programming Interfaces (API)
B. Improper use and storage of management keys
C. Misconfiguration of infrastructure allowing for unauthorized access
D. Vulnerabilities within protocols that can expose confidential data
Question # 13
The amount of data that will be collected during an audit is PRIMARILY determined by the.
A. audit scope.
B. auditor's experience level.
C. availability of the data.
D. integrity of the data.
Question # 14
The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include
A. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization.
B. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication.
C. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication.
D. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.
Question # 15
An internal Service Level Agreement (SLA) covering security is signed by senior managers and is in place. When should compliance to the SLA be reviewed to ensure that a good security posture is being delivered?
A. As part of the SLA renewal process
B. Prior to a planned security audit
C. Immediately after a security breach
D. At regularly scheduled meetings
Question # 16
Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a firewall or router?
A. Network Address Translation (NAT)
B. Application Proxy
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2
D. Address Masking
Question # 17
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnections (OSI) model implementation adds information concerning the logical connection between the sender and receiver?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data-Link
Question # 18
Which of the following can BEST prevent security flaws occurring in outsourced software development?
A. Contractual requirements for code quality
B. Licensing, code ownership and intellectual property rights
C. Certification of the quality and accuracy of the work done
D. Delivery dates, change management control and budgetary control
Question # 19
How should the retention period for an organization's social media content be defined?
A. By the retention policies of each social media service
B. By the records retention policy of the organization
C. By the Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. By the amount of available storage space
Question # 20
What is the PRIMARY purpose of auditing, as it relates to the security review cycle?
A. To ensure the organization's controls and pokies are working as intended
B. To ensure the organization can still be publicly traded
C. To ensure the organization's executive team won't be sued
D. To ensure the organization meets contractual requirements
Elle - Dec 14, 2024
Highly recommend these CISSP dumps! Scored 94% on my exam, thanks to these comprehensive questions.