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Question # 1
A company would like to provide employees with computers that do not have access to the internetin order to prevent information from being leaked to an online forum. Which of the following wouldbe best for the systems administrator to implement?
A. Air gap B. Jump server C. Logical segmentation D. Virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
To provide employees with computers that do not have access to the internet and prevent
information leaks to an online forum, implementing an air gap would be the best solution. An air gap
physically isolates the computer or network from any outside connections, including the internet,
ensuring that data cannot be transferred to or from the system.
Air gap: A security measure that isolates a computer or network from the internet or other networks,
preventing any form of electronic communication with external systems.
Jump server: A secure server used to access and manage devices in a different security zone, but it
does not provide isolation from the internet.
Logical segmentation: Segregates networks using software or network configurations, but it does not
guarantee complete isolation from the internet.
Virtualization: Creates virtual instances of systems, which can be isolated, but does not inherently
prevent internet access without additional configurations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5 - Explain the purpose of mitigation techniques used to secure the enterprise (Air gap) .
Question # 2
An administrator needs to perform server hardening before deployment. Which of the followingsteps should the administrator take? (Select two)
A. Disable default accounts. B. Add the server to the asset inventory. C. Remove unnecessary services. D. Document default passwords. E. Send server logs to the SIEM.E. Join the server to the corporate domain.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
To perform server hardening before deployment, the administrator should disable default accounts
and remove unnecessary services. These steps are crucial to reducing the attack surface and
enhancing the security of the server.
Disable default accounts: Default accounts often come with default credentials that are well-known
and can be exploited by attackers. Disabling these accounts helps prevent unauthorized access.
Remove unnecessary services: Unnecessary services can introduce vulnerabilities and be exploited
by attackers. Removing them reduces the number of potential attack vectors.
Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for tracking and management but not directly
related to hardening.
Document default passwords: Documentation is useful, but changing or disabling default passwords
is the hardening step.
Send server logs to the SIEM: Useful for monitoring and analysis but not a direct hardening step.
Join the server to the corporate domain: Part of integration into the network but not specific to
hardening.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various
types of security controls (Server hardening) .
Question # 3
Which of the following tasks is typically included in the BIA process?
A. Estimating the recovery time of systems B. Identifying the communication strategy C. Evaluating the risk management plan D. Establishing the backup and recovery procedures E. Developing the incident response plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Estimating the recovery time of systems is a task typically included in the Business Impact Analysis
(BIA) process. BIA involves identifying the critical functions of a business and determining the impact
of a disruption. This includes estimating how long it will take to recover systems and resume normal
operations.
Estimating the recovery time of systems: A key component of BIA, which helps in understanding the
time needed to restore systems and services after a disruption.
Identifying the communication strategy: Typically part of the incident response plan, not BIA.
Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk management, not specifically BIA.
Establishing the backup and recovery procedures: Important for disaster recovery, not directly part of
BIA.
Developing the incident response plan: Focuses on responding to security incidents, not on the
Which of the following describes effective change management procedures?
A. Approving the change after a successful deployment B. Having a backout plan when a patch fails C. Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes D. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates
Answer: B
Effective change management procedures include having a backout plan when a patch fails. A
backout plan ensures that there are predefined steps to revert the system to its previous state if the
new change or patch causes issues, thereby minimizing downtime and mitigating potential negative
impacts.
Having a backout plan when a patch fails: Essential for ensuring that changes can be safely reverted
in case of problems, maintaining system stability and availability.
Approving the change after a successful deployment: Changes should be approved before
deployment, not after.
Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes: While useful for documentation, it is not a comprehensive
change management procedure.
Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates: Bypassing change control can lead to
unapproved and potentially disruptive changes.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance of
change management processes (Backout plan) .
Question # 5
A security administrator is configuring fileshares. The administrator removed the default permissionsand added permissions for only users who will need to access the fileshares as part of their jobduties. Which of the following best describes why the administrator performed these actions?
A. Encryption standard compliance B. Data replication requirements C. Least privilege D. Access control monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
The security administrator's actions of removing default permissions and adding permissions only for
users who need access as part of their job duties best describe the principle of least privilege. This
principle ensures that users are granted the minimum necessary access to perform their job
functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.
Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary for their job duties,
enhancing security by reducing potential attack surfaces.
Encryption standard compliance: Involves meeting encryption requirements, but it does not explain
the removal and assignment of specific permissions.
Data replication requirements: Focus on duplicating data across different systems for redundancy and
availability, not related to user permissions.
Access control monitoring: Involves tracking and reviewing access to resources, but the scenario is
A systems administrator would like to deploy a change to a production system. Which of thefollowing must the administrator submit to demonstrate that the system can be restored to aworking state in the event of a performance issue?
A. Backout plan B. Impact analysis C. Test procedure D. Approval procedure
Answer: A
Explanation:
To demonstrate that the system can be restored to a working state in the event of a performance
issue after deploying a change, the systems administrator must submit a backout plan. A backout
plan outlines the steps to revert the system to its previous state if the new deployment causes
problems.
Backout plan: Provides detailed steps to revert changes and restore the system to its previous state in
case of issues, ensuring minimal disruption and quick recovery.
Impact analysis: Evaluates the potential effects of a change but does not provide steps to revert
changes.
Test procedure: Details the steps for testing the change but does not address restoring the system to
a previous state.
Approval procedure: Involves obtaining permissions for the change but does not ensure system
recovery in case of issues.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance of
change management processes (Backout plan) .
Question # 7
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment.Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?
A. Input validation B. Code signing C. SQL injection D. Static analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best security
measure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity
of the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.
Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity,
ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.
Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verify
the integrity of compiled binaries.
SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure.
Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity of
compiled binaries in production.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 - Explain the importance of
using appropriate cryptographic solutions (Code signing) .
Question # 8
A company is decommissioning its physical servers and replacing them with an architecture that willreduce the number of individual operating systems. Which of the following strategies should thecompany use to achieve this security requirement?
A. Microservices B. Containerization C. Virtualization D. Infrastructure as code
Answer: B
Explanation:
To reduce the number of individual operating systems while decommissioning physical servers, the
company should use containerization. Containerization allows multiple applications to run in isolated
environments on a single operating system, significantly reducing the overhead compared to running
multiple virtual machines, each with its own OS.
Containerization: Uses containers to run multiple isolated applications on a single OS kernel,
reducing the need for multiple OS instances and improving resource utilization.
Microservices: An architectural style that structures an application as a collection of loosely coupled
services, which does not necessarily reduce the number of operating systems.
Virtualization: Allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server, but each VM
requires its own OS, not reducing the number of OS instances.
Infrastructure as code: Manages and provisions computing infrastructure through machine-readable
configuration files, but it does not directly impact the number of operating systems.
implications of different architecture models (Containerization) .
Question # 9
A company hired a security manager from outside the organization to lead security operations.Which of the following actions should the security manager perform first in this new role?
A. Establish a security baseline. B. Review security policies. C. Adopt security benchmarks. D. Perform a user ID revalidation
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a security manager is hired from outside the organization to lead security operations, the first
action should be to review the existing security policies. Understanding the current security policies
provides a foundation for identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas that require improvement,
ensuring that the security program aligns with the organization's goals and regulatory requirements.
Review security policies: Provides a comprehensive understanding of the existing security
framework, helping the new manager to identify gaps and areas for enhancement.
Establish a security baseline: Important but should be based on a thorough understanding of existing
policies and practices.
Adopt security benchmarks: Useful for setting standards, but reviewing current policies is a necessary
precursor.
Perform a user ID revalidation: Important for ensuring user access is appropriate but not the first step
in understanding overall security operations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Summarize elements of
Which of the following security controls is most likely being used when a critical legacy server issegmented into a private network?
A. Deterrent B. Corrective C. Compensating D. Preventive
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network, the security control being used is
compensating. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy a security
requirement when the primary control is not feasible or practical. In this case, segmenting the legacy
server into a private network serves as a compensating control to protect it from potential
vulnerabilities that cannot be mitigated directly.
Compensating: Provides an alternative method to achieve the desired security outcome when the
primary control is not possible.
Deterrent: Aims to discourage potential attackers but does not directly address segmentation.
Corrective: Used to correct or mitigate the impact of an incident after it has occurred.
Preventive: Aims to prevent security incidents but is not specific to the context of segmentation.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various
types of security controls (Compensating controls) .
Question # 11
A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan andlooking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which ofthe following is the best type of site for this company?
A. Cold B. Tertiary C. Warm D. Hot
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue
operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is
equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations
with minimal downtime.
Hot site: Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster.
Cold site: A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant
time to become operational.
Tertiary site: Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup
location but lacks the specifics of readiness.
Warm site: Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become
fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.4 - Importance of resilience and
recovery in security architecture (Site considerations: Hot site) .
Question # 12
A security administrator identifies an application that is storing data using MD5. Which of thefollowing best identifies the vulnerability likely present in the application?
A. Cryptographic B. Malicious update C. Zero day D. Side loading
Answer: A
Explanation:
The vulnerability likely present in the application that is storing data using MD5 is a cryptographic
vulnerability. MD5 is considered to be a weak hashing algorithm due to its susceptibility to collision
attacks, where two different inputs produce the same hash output, compromising data integrity and
security.
Cryptographic: Refers to vulnerabilities in cryptographic algorithms or implementations, such as the
weaknesses in MD5.
Malicious update: Refers to the intentional injection of harmful updates, not related to the use of
MD5.
Zero day: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities for which no patch is available, not specifically
related to MD5.
Side loading: Involves installing software from unofficial sources, not directly related to the use of
MD5.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 - Explain the importance of
using appropriate cryptographic solutions (MD5 vulnerabilities)
Question # 13
A security engineer needs to configure an NGFW to minimize the impact of the increasing number ofvarious traffic types during attacks. Which of the following types of rules is the engineer the mostlikely to configure?
A. Signature-based B. Behavioral-based C. URL-based D. Agent-based
Answer: B
Explanation:
To minimize the impact of the increasing number of various traffic types during attacks, a security
engineer is most likely to configure behavioral-based rules on a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW).
Behavioral-based rules analyze the behavior of traffic patterns and can detect and block unusual or
malicious activity that deviates from normal behavior.
Behavioral-based: Detects anomalies by comparing current traffic behavior to known good behavior,
making it effective against various traffic types during attacks.
Signature-based: Relies on known patterns of known threats, which might not be as effective against
new or varied attack types.
URL-based: Controls access to websites based on URL categories but is not specifically aimed at
handling diverse traffic types during attacks.
Agent-based: Typically involves software agents on endpoints to monitor and enforce policies, not
to enhance security (Behavioral-based rules on NGFW) .
Question # 14
A network administrator is working on a project to deploy a load balancer in the company's cloudenvironment. Which of the following fundamental security requirements does this project fulfill?
A. Privacy B. Integrity C. Confidentiality D. Availability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Deploying a load balancer in the company's cloud environment primarily fulfills the fundamental
security requirement of availability. A load balancer distributes incoming network traffic across
multiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed and that the service remains
available even if some servers fail.
Availability: Ensures that services and resources are accessible when needed, which is directly
Questions and Answers PDF 139/149
supported by load balancing.
Privacy: Protects personal and sensitive information from unauthorized access but is not directly
related to load balancing.
Integrity: Ensures that data is accurate and has not been tampered with, but load balancing is not
primarily focused on data integrity.
Confidentiality: Ensures that information is accessible only to authorized individuals, which is not the
The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling theappropriate departments. Which of the following describes this scenario?
A. Shadow IT B. Insider threat C. Data exfiltration D. Service disruption
Answer: A
Explanation:
The marketing department setting up its own project management software without informing the
appropriate departments is an example of Shadow IT. Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems,
devices, software, applications, and services without explicit approval from the IT department.
Shadow IT: Involves the use of unauthorized systems and applications within an organization, which
can lead to security risks and compliance issues.
Insider threat: Refers to threats from individuals within the organization who may intentionally cause
harm or misuse their access, but this scenario is more about unauthorized use rather than malicious
intent.
Data exfiltration: Involves unauthorized transfer of data out of the organization, which is not the
main issue in this scenario.
Service disruption: Refers to interruptions in service availability, which is not directly related to the
common threat actors and motivations (Shadow IT) .
Question # 16
During a recent breach, employee credentials were compromised when a service desk employeeissued an MFA bypass code to an attacker who called and posed as an employee. Which of thefollowing should be used to prevent this type of incident in the future?
A. Hardware token MFA B. Biometrics C. Identity proofing D. Least privilege
Answer: C
Explanation:
To prevent the issuance of an MFA bypass code to an attacker posing as an employee, implementing
identity proofing would be most effective. Identity proofing involves verifying the identity of
individuals before granting access or providing sensitive information.
Identity proofing: Ensures that the person requesting the MFA bypass is who they claim to be,
thereby preventing social engineering attacks where attackers pose as legitimate employees.
Hardware token MFA: Provides an additional factor for authentication but does not address verifying
the requester's identity.
Biometrics: Offers strong authentication based on physical characteristics but is not related to the
process of issuing MFA bypass codes.
Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary to perform their work
but does not prevent social engineering attacks targeting the service desk.
identity and access management (Identity proofing) .
Question # 17
To improve the security at a data center, a security administrator implements a CCTV system andposts several signs about the possibility of being filmed. Which of the following best describe thesetypes of controls? (Select two).
The CCTV system and signs about the possibility of being filmed serve as both deterrent and
detective controls.
Deterrent controls: Aim to discourage potential attackers from attempting unauthorized actions.
Posting signs about CCTV serves as a deterrent by warning individuals that their actions are being
monitored.
Detective controls: Identify and record unauthorized or suspicious activity. The CCTV system itself
functions as a detective control by capturing and recording footage that can be reviewed later.
Preventive controls: Aim to prevent security incidents but are not directly addressed by the CCTV and
signs in this context.
Corrective controls: Aim to correct or mitigate the impact of a security incident.
Directive controls: Provide guidelines or instructions but are not directly addressed by the CCTV and
signs.
Compensating controls: Provide alternative measures to compensate for the absence or failure of
primary controls.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various
types of security controls (Deterrent and detective controls)
Question # 18
A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, themanager notices that the domain's URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following securitypractices helped the manager to identify the attack?
A. End user training B. Policy review C. URL scanning D. Plain text email
Answer: A
Explanation:
The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training.
Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hovering
over links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization's security awareness
program.
End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, including
suspicious emails and phishing attempts.
Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help in
identifying specific attacks.
URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.
Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification in
Which of the following penetration testing teams is focused only on trying to compromise anorganization using an attacker's tactics?
A. White B. Red C. Purple D. Blue
Answer: B
Explanation:
Red teams are focused only on trying to compromise an organization using an attacker's tactics. They
simulate real-world attacks to test the effectiveness of the organization's security defenses and
identify vulnerabilities.
Red team: Acts as adversaries to simulate attacks and find security weaknesses.
White team: Oversees and ensures the rules of engagement are followed during the penetration
test.
Purple team: Facilitates collaboration between the red team and the blue team to improve security.
Blue team: Defends against attacks and responds to security incidents.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.5 - Types and purposes of audits
and assessments (Penetration testing: Red team) .
Question # 20
An engineer moved to another team and is unable to access the new team's shared folders while stillbeing able to access the shared folders from the former team. After opening a ticket, the engineerdiscovers that the account was never moved to the new group. Which of the following accesscontrols is most likely causing the lack of access?
A. Role-based B. Discretionary C. Time of day D. Least privilege
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely access control causing the lack of access is role-based access control (RBAC). In RBAC,
access to resources is determined by the roles assigned to users. Since the engineer's account was
not moved to the new group's role, the engineer does not have the necessary permissions to access
the new team's shared folders.
Role-based access control (RBAC): Assigns permissions based on the user's role within the
organization. If the engineer's role does not include the new group's permissions, access will be
denied.
Discretionary access control (DAC): Access is based on the discretion of the data owner, but it is not
typically related to group membership changes.
Time of day: Restricts access based on the time but does not affect group memberships.
Least privilege: Ensures users have the minimum necessary permissions, but the issue here is about
group membership, not the principle of least privilege.
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I prepared for the SY0-701 exam through this website. It had all the mock tests, exam dumps, authentic questions, and resources to understand topics. This all helped me score 800/900 on the test. Thank-you.