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Question # 1
Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information isprotected against unauthorized disclosure?
A. Integrity B. Authenticity C. Confidentiality D. Nonrepudiation
Answer: C
Explanation: Confidentiality is the security objective that best ensures that information is
protected against unauthorized disclosure. Confidentiality means that only authorized
parties can access or view sensitive or classified information. Integrity means that
information is accurate and consistent and has not been tampered with or modified by
unauthorized parties. Authenticity means that information is genuine and trustworthy and
has not been forged or misrepresented by unauthorized parties. Nonrepudiation means
that information can be verified and proven to be sent or received by a specific party
An organization has identified a large volume of old data that appears to be unused. Which of the following should the information security manager do NEXT?
A. Consult the record retention policy. B. Update the awareness and training program. C. Implement media sanitization procedures. D. Consult the backup and recovery policy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The next thing that the information security manager should do after identifying a large
volume of old data that appears to be unused is to consult the record retention policy. The
record retention policy is a document that defines the types, formats, and retention periods
of data that the organization needs to keep for legal, regulatory, operational, or historical
purposes. By consulting the record retention policy, the information security manager can
determine if the old data is still required to be stored, archived, or disposed of, and how to
do so in a secure and compliant manner.
References: The CISM Review Manual 2023 states that “the information security manager
is responsible for ensuring that the data lifecycle management process is in alignment with
the organization’s record retention policy” and that “the record retention policy defines the
types, formats, and retention periods of data that the organization needs to keep for legal,
regulatory, operational, or historical purposes” (p. 140). The CISM Review Questions,
Answers & Explanations Manual 2023 also provides the following rationale for this answer:
“Consult the record retention policy is the correct answer because it is the next logical step
to take after identifying a large volume of old data that appears to be unused, as it will help
the information security manager to decide on the appropriate data lifecycle management
actions for the old data, such as storage, archiving, or disposal” (p. 64). Additionally, the
article Data Retention Policy: What It Is and How to Create One from the ISACA Journal
2019 states that “a data retention policy is a document that outlines the types, formats, and
retention periods of data that an organization needs to keep for various purposes, such as
legal compliance, business operations, or historical records” and that “a data retention
policy can help an organization to manage its data lifecycle, optimize its storage capacity,
reduce its costs, and enhance its security and privacy” (p. 1)1.
Question # 5
Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization'sdisaster recovery plan (DRP)?
A. The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management. B. The plan is based on industry best practices. C. Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team. D. Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way to ensure the effective execution of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) is to
make sure that the procedures are available at both the primary and the failover location,
so that the staff can access them in case of a disaster. The procedures should be clear,
concise, and updated regularly to reflect the current situation and requirements. Having the
procedures available at both locations also helps to avoid confusion and delays in the
and Disaster Recovery, Section: Disaster Recovery Planning, Subsection: Disaster
Recovery Plan Development, Page 373.
Question # 6
Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a ew industry regulation?
A. The organization's control objectives B. The organization's risk management framework C. The organization's risk appetite D. The organization's risk control baselines
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most influential factor on an organization’s response to a new industry regulation is the
organization’s risk appetite. This is because the risk appetite defines the level of risk that
the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and it guides the decisionmaking
process for managing risks. The risk appetite also determines the extent to which
the organization needs to comply with the new regulation, and the resources and actions
required to achieve compliance. The risk appetite should be aligned with the organization’s
strategy, culture, and values, and it should be communicated and monitored throughout the organization.
Question # 7
Which of the following roles is MOST appropriate to determine access rights for specificusers of an application?
A. Data owner B. Data custodian C. System administrator D. Senior management
Answer: A
Explanation: The data owner is the most appropriate role to determine access rights for
specific users of an application because they have legal rights and complete control over
data elements4. They are also responsible for approving data glossaries and definitions,
ensuring the accuracy of information, and supervising operations related to data quality5
. The data custodian is responsible for the safe custody, transport, and storage of the data
and implementation of business rules, but not for determining access rights4. The system
administrator is responsible for managing the security and storage infrastructure of data
sets according to the organization’s data governance policies, but not for determining
access rights5. Senior management is responsible for setting the strategic direction and
priorities for data governance, but not for determining access rights5. References: 5
The effectiveness of an incident response team will be GREATEST when:
A. the incident response team meets on a regular basis to review log files. B. the incident response team members are trained security personnel. C. the incident response process is updated based on lessons learned. D. incidents are identified using a security information and event monitoring {SIEM) system.
Answer: C
Question # 9
Which of the following metrics provides the BEST evidence of alignment of information security governance with corporate governance?
A. Average return on investment (ROI) associated with security initiatives B. Average number of security incidents across business units C. Mean time to resolution (MTTR) for enterprise-wide security incidents D. Number of vulnerabilities identified for high-risk information assets
Answer: A
Explanation: Average return on investment (ROI) associated with security initiatives is the
best metric to provide evidence of alignment of information security governance with
corporate governance because it demonstrates the value and benefits of security
investments to the organization’s strategic goals and objectives. Average number of
security incidents across business units is not a good metric because it does not measure
the effectiveness or efficiency of security initiatives or their alignment with corporate
governance. Mean time to resolution (MTTR) for enterprise-wide security incidents is not a
good metric because it does not measure the impact or outcome of security initiatives or
their alignment with corporate governance. Number of vulnerabilities identified for high-risk
information assets is not a good metric because it does not measure the performance or
improvement of security initiatives or their alignment with corporate governance.
A business impact analysis (BIA) should be periodically executed PRIMARILY to:
A. validate vulnerabilities on environmental changes. B. analyze the importance of assets. C. check compliance with regulations. D. verify the effectiveness of controls.
Answer: D
Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that helps identify and
evaluate the potential effects of disruptions or incidents on the organization’s mission,
objectives, and operations. A BIA should be periodically executed to verify the
effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to prevent, mitigate, or recover from
such disruptions or incidents12.
According to the CISM Manual, a BIA should be performed at least annually for critical
systems and processes, and more frequently for non-critical ones3. A BIA should also be
updated whenever there are significant changes in the organization’s environment, such as
new regulations, technologies, business models, or stakeholder expectations3. A BIA
should not be used to validate vulnerabilities on environmental changes (A), analyze the
(BIA) - YouTube 3: CISM ITEM DEVELOPMENT GUIDE - ISACA
Question # 11
To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BESTapproach is to:
A. review the security of the application before implementation. B. integrate functionality the development stage. C. perform a vulnerability analysis. D. periodically audit the security of the application.
Answer: C
Explanation: Performing a vulnerability analysis is the best option to ensure that a new
application complies with information security policy because it helps to identify and
evaluate any security flaws or weaknesses in the application that may expose it to potential
threats or attacks, and provide recommendations or solutions to mitigate them. Reviewing
the security of the application before implementation is not a good option because it may
not detect or prevent all security issues that may arise after implementation or deployment.
Integrating security functionality at the development stage is not a good option because it
may not account for all security requirements or challenges of the application or its
environment. Periodically auditing the security of the application is not a good option
because it may not address any security issues that may occur between audits or after
Which of the following BEST enables the capability of an organization to sustain thedelivery of products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacityduring a disruption?
A. Service level agreement (SLA) B. Business continuity plan (BCP) C. Disaster recovery plan (DRP) D. Business impact analysis (BIA)
Answer: B
Explanation: The best option to enable the capability of an organization to sustain the delivery of
products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacity during a
disruption is B. Business continuity plan (BCP). This is because a BCP is a documented
collection of procedures and information that guides the organization to prepare for,
respond to, and recover from a disruption, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a
pandemic. A BCP aims to ensure the continuity of the critical business functions and
processes that support the delivery of products and services to the customers and
stakeholders. A BCP also defines the roles, responsibilities, resources, and actions
required to maintain the operational resilience of the organization in the face of a
An organization's information security team presented the risk register at a recentinformation security steering committee meeting. Which of the following should be of MOSTconcern to the committee?
A. No owners were identified for some risks. B. Business applications had the highest number of risks. C. Risk mitigation action plans had no timelines. D. Risk mitigation action plan milestones were delayed.
Answer: A
Explanation: The most concerning issue for the information security steering committee
should be that no owners were identified for some risks in the risk register. This means that
there is no clear accountability and responsibility for managing and mitigating those risks,
and that the risks may not be properly addressed or monitored. The risk owners are the
persons who have the authority and ability to implement the risk treatment options and to
accept the residual risk. The risk owners should be identified and assigned for each risk in
the risk register, and they should report the status and progress of the risk management
activities to the information security steering committee.
An organization is leveraging tablets to replace desktop computers shared by shift-basedstaff These tablets contain critical business data and are inherently at increased risk of theftWhich of the following will BEST help to mitigate this risk''
A. Deploy mobile device management (MDM) B. Implement remote wipe capability. C. Create an acceptable use policy. D. Conduct a mobile device risk assessment
Answer: D
Explanation: A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that provides an early warning of
potential exposure to a risk. A KRI should be relevant, measurable, timely, and actionable.
The most important factor in an organization’s selection of a KRI is the criticality of
information, which means that the KRI should reflect the value and sensitivity of the
information assets that are exposed to the risk. For example, a KRI for data breach risk
could be the number of unauthorized access attempts to a database that contains
confidential customer data. The criticality of information helps to prioritize the risks and
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?
A. Perform a gap analysis based on the current state B. Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls. C. Identify key stakeholders to champion information security. D. Determine acceptable levels of information security risk.
Answer: A
Explanation: The FIRST step in developing an information security strategy is to perform
a gap analysis based on the current state of the organization’s information security posture.
A gap analysis is a systematic process of comparing the current state with the desired state
and identifying the gaps or deficiencies that need to be addressed. A gap analysis helps to establish a baseline for the information security strategy, as well as to prioritize the actions
and resources needed to achieve the strategic objectives. A gap analysis also helps to
align the information security strategy with the organizational goals and strategies, as well
as to ensure compliance with relevant standards and regulations. References = CISM
first step in developing an information security strategy is to conduct a risk-aware and
comprehensive inventory of your company’s context, including all digital assets,
employees, and vendors. Then you need to know about the threat environment and which
types of attacks are a threat to your company1. This is similar to performing a gap analysis
based on the current state3.
Question # 16
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
A. To define security roles and responsibilities B. To determine return on investment (ROI) C. To establish incident severity levels D. To determine the criticality of information assets
Answer: D
Explanation:
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential
effects of disruptions to critical business operations as a result of a disaster, accident or
emergency. The primary purpose of a BIA is to determine the criticality of information
assets and the impact of their unavailability on the organization’s mission, objectives and
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of security incidents from targeted email attacks?
A. Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system B. Disable all incoming cloud mail services C. Conduct awareness training across the organization D. Require acknowledgment of the acceptable use policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Conducting awareness training across the organization is the best way to reduce the risk of
security incidents from targeted email attacks because it helps to educate and empower
the employees to recognize and avoid falling for such attacks. Targeted email attacks, such
as phishing, spear phishing, or business email compromise, rely on social engineering
techniques to deceive and manipulate the recipients into clicking on malicious links,
opening malicious attachments, or disclosing sensitive information. Awareness training can
help to raise the level of security culture and behavior among the employees, as well as to
provide them with practical tips and best practices to protect themselves and the
organization from targeted email attacks. Therefore, conducting awareness training across
Which of the following is MOST appropriate to communicate to senior management regarding information risk?
A. Defined risk appetite B. Emerging security technologies C. Vulnerability scanning progress D. Risk profile changes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most appropriate information to communicate to senior management regarding
information risk is the risk profile changes, which reflect the current level and nature of the risks that the organization faces. The risk profile changes can help senior management to
understand the impact of the risks on the business objectives, the effectiveness of the risk
management strategy, and the need for any adjustments or improvements. The risk profile
changes can also help senior management to prioritize the allocation of resources and to
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for identifying security controlgaps on an application server?
A. Risk assessments B. Threat models C. Penetration testing D. Internal audit reports
Answer: C
Explanation: Penetration testing is the most useful method for identifying security control
gaps on an application server because it simulates real-world attacks and exploits the
vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the application server. Penetration testing can reveal the
actual impact and risk of the security control gaps, and provide recommendations for
remediation and improvement.
References: The CISM Review Manual 2023 defines penetration testing as “a method of
evaluating the security of an information system or network by simulating an attack from a
malicious source” and states that “penetration testing can help identify security control gaps
and provide evidence of the potential impact and risk of the gaps” (p. 185). The CISM
Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023 also provides the following
rationale for this answer: “Penetration testing is the correct answer because it is the most
useful method for identifying security control gaps on an application server, as it simulates
real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the application server,
and provides recommendations for remediation and improvement” (p. 95). Additionally, the
web search result 4 states that “penetration testing is a valuable tool for discovering
security gaps in your application server and network infrastructure” and that “penetration
testing can help you assess the effectiveness and efficiency of your security controls, and
identify the areas that need improvement or enhancement” (p. 1).
Question # 20
Following a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have beenperformed, which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Place the web server in quarantine. B. Rebuild the server from the last verified backup. C. Shut down the server in an organized manner. D. Rebuild the server with relevant patches from the original media.
Answer: B
Explanation:
= After a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have been
performed, the next step should be to rebuild the server from the last verified backup. This
will ensure that the server is restored to a known and secure state, and that any malicious
code or data that may have been injected or compromised by the attacker is removed.
Rebuilding the server from the original media may not be sufficient, as it may not include
the latest patches or configurations that were applied before the breach. Placing the web
server in quarantine or shutting it down may not be feasible or desirable, as it may disrupt
the business operations or services that depend on the server. Rebuilding the server from
the last verified backup is the best option to resume normal operations while maintaining
security. References =
CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 118: “Recovery is the process of restoring normal
operations after an incident. Recovery activities may include rebuilding systems, restoring
data, applying patches, changing passwords, and testing functionality.”
Data Breach Experts Share The Most Important Next Step You Should Take After A Data
Breach in 2014 & 2015, snippet: “Restore from backup. If you have a backup of your
system from before the breach, wipe your system clean and restore from backup. This will
ensure that any backdoors or malware installed by the hackers are removed.”
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